Tackling Tradition 66 - Simon & Cephas in Luke 24 & 1 Corinthians 15

To whom is Paul referring in 1 Corinthians 15:5?      Is it Peter or someone else?     and that he appeared to Cephas, then to the twelve. ( 1 Corinthians 15:5 , ESV) But Peter rose and ran to the tomb; stooping and looking in, he saw the linen cloths by themselves; and he went home marveling at what had happened.  ( Luke 24:12 , ESV) saying, “The Lord has risen indeed, and has appeared to Simon!”  ( Luke 24:34 , ESV) Most people believe that 1 Corinthians 15:5 is referring to Peter, based on their understanding that John calls Peter “Cephas” in John 1:42. One of the two who heard John speak and followed Jesus was Andrew, Simon Peter’s brother.  41  He first found his own brother Simon and said to him, “We have found the Messiah” (which means Christ).  42  He brought him to Jesus. Jesus looked at him and said, “You are Simon the son of John. You shall be called Cephas” (which means Peter).  ( John 1:40–42 , ESV) —-But ther...

Iilicit Totality Transfer & Romans 1:26 - 27

 Objection:  Genesis 1:27 : 

So God created man in his own image,

in the image of God he created him;

male and female he created them.


God created Adam male & Eve female.  This is the created ontology of all people, insofar as Adam & Eve represent us all.  Since God created them male & female, this text serves as a prooftext for heteronormativity. 


The disputant then imports this into the text of Romans 1:26 - 27 on the premise that what Genesis 1:27 says about the created anatomical/physiological &/or psychological state of Adam & Eve, the natural (meaning physical &/or psychological) state is what Romans 1:26 - 27 is referencing.  


The same disputant reads my own statement about the meaning of “natural” & “unnatural” as a reference to the **moral** not the **physiological/anatomical/psychological order & accuses me of committing an illicit totality transfer. 


By way of reply:  


I haven’t claimed that the term “natural” means the same thing in each & every text regardless of its context.    I fear he doesn’t understand the fallacy. 


The Illicit Totality Transfer is defined as taking the meaning — the sense or concept — from one part of Scripture and lifting that idea and wrongly applying it to another Scripture that may deploy the same words or is about the same concept or a very similar concept, when  in truth the 2 texts deploy totally different usage.


Think of it as Conceptual Incest in which a disputant maps one author’s usage onto another author’s usage & proceeds to argue accordingly.  It’s analogous to reading James use of the term “justify” in James 2 then mapping James’ usage back onto Paul’s usage.  The proper procedure is to exegete/exposit them separately then harmonize them not use one to interpret the other as if “justify” & the concept of justification in Romans & the manner in which James uses “justify” in James are one & the same.   That process is what Rome does when explaining James & Romans & winds up with justification by faith & works — th antithesis of Paul’s (& James’) understanding of forensic justification. 


The disputant describing your own interpretation in which you are using “natural” as a cipher for “heterosexual” from Genesis 1:27 then insisting that because Romans 1:26 - 27 discusses sexual behavior, the term “natural” in Genesis (as to the state of the created order) is what “natural” means here.   Genesis is referring to human bodily ontology (sex/gender).  Romans is referring to the **moral** order, the result of using the human image as a moral warrant.  


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